Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 16.06.2025 00:44
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why did McLaren hope that the Ferrari pair would pit twice during the Italian Grand Prix?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
If there exists a “New York of Australia”, is it Sydney or Melbourne?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.